Why is Jesus called the "Son of Man"?
by John Piper
understanding and then a more sophisticated historical understanding.
The common understanding is that "Son of God" implies his deity—which it does—and that "Son of Man" implies his humanity, which it does too.
He was a son of man, that is, a human being. And he is the Son of God, in that he has always existed as the Eternally Begotten One who comes forth from the Father forever. He always has, and he always will. He is the Second Person of the Trinity with all of the divine nature fully in him.
He is born of a virgin. He had a human father but he didn't have sex with this virgin until Jesus was conceived. He was conceived of the Holy Spirit in the virgin Mary. Thus he is human—fully human. The Bible wants to emphasize that he is fully human.
So that's the common understanding: he is both divine and he is human—two natures, one person.
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The phrase "Son of Man" is much deeper than just meaning Jesus was fully human. It has specific ties to the theology of Daniel and is a very specific Hebraism. Understanding things like this is a benefit of studying the Jewish roots of Christianity.
Posted by: DanielSWesley | 03/04/2013 at 05:12 PM
Jim,
I believe that Jesus refers to himself as the Son of Man nearly 80 times in the Gospels, so I would say that you are correct.
Posted by: Greg West | 09/23/2010 at 09:16 PM
I have heard that Jesus, Himself, used the name "Son of Man" more than any other in referring to Himself.
Posted by: Jim Q | 09/23/2010 at 08:31 PM